Math, asked by shreyashsf, 5 hours ago

If log (xy') = 1 and log (x²y) = 1, then
log (xy)​

Answers

Answered by awesomeshivans75
0

Answer:

No, log(x²) = 2log(x). Remember your rules for exponents, and remember that logs are exponents. ... You'll notice that we multiply the two powers and if log(x) = 2, this is the same as base² = x.

Step-by-step explanation:

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