Question

If m = (– 1)²⁰⁰⁰ and n = (– 1)²⁰⁰², then the value of $\frac{m}{n}$(A) – 1 (B) 1(C) 2000 (D) 2002

Answer 1

m = (– 1)²⁰⁰⁰ =1

n = (– 1)²⁰⁰²=1

then,

m / n = 1 / 1 = 1

therefore your answer is 1.

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