Math, asked by deepucod7, 5 hours ago

If m<n then a^m/a^n Please give the answer its very urgent ​

Answers

Answered by sc908355
0

answer=0

We know that,

a

m

.a

n

=a

m+n

That is,

mn=m+n.

Now,

m(n−2)+n(m−2)=mn−2m+nm−2n

=2mn−2(m+n)=2(m+n)−2(m+n)=0

∴ The required answer is 0.

Answered by vishweshbhat16
0

Answer:

1/a^(m-n)

Step-by-step explanation:

(a^m)/(a^n) = a^(m-n)

Now, since n>m:

(m-n) = some negetive value....

Therefore,

1/a^(m-n)

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