If m<n then a^m/a^n Please give the answer its very urgent
Answers
Answered by
0
answer=0
We know that,
a
m
.a
n
=a
m+n
That is,
mn=m+n.
Now,
m(n−2)+n(m−2)=mn−2m+nm−2n
=2mn−2(m+n)=2(m+n)−2(m+n)=0
∴ The required answer is 0.
Answered by
0
Answer:
1/a^(m-n)
Step-by-step explanation:
(a^m)/(a^n) = a^(m-n)
Now, since n>m:
(m-n) = some negetive value....
Therefore,
1/a^(m-n)
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