Math, asked by himanshuchowdary526, 8 hours ago

if m ≥ n,then a^m/a^n=

Answers

Answered by tecarafat
0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

You can’t prove it because it isn’t so.

Take a = 0 or a = 1, then m and n can be anything and the numbers will be equal.

And if a = -1, then if m and n are both even or both odd, then the two numbers will be equal.

And that’s without considering complex numbers.

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