Math, asked by prince589, 1 year ago

if mth term of ap is 1/n and nth term is a/ m then show that its (mn)th term is 1

Answers

Answered by Swarup1998
38
The answer is given below :

Let us consider that the first term of the AP is a and the common ratio is d.

Given,

m-th term = 1/n

=> a + (m - 1)d = 1/n .....(i)

and

n-th term = 1/m

=> a + (n - 1)d = 1/m .....(ii)

We have

a + (m - 1)d = 1/n .....(i)
a + (n - 1)d = 1/m .....(ii)

On subtraction, we get

(m - 1 - n + 1)d = (1/n - 1/m)

=> (m - n)d = (m - n)/mn

=> d = 1/mn

So, common ratio = 1/mn

Putting d = 1/mn in (i), we get

a + (m - 1)(1/mn) = 1/n

=> a + 1/n - 1/mn = 1/n

=> a = 1/mn [cancelling 1/n from both sides]

So, first term = 1/mn

Therefore, the mn-th term is

= a + (mn - 1)d

= 1/mn + (mn - 1)(1/mn)

= 1/mn + mn/mn - 1/mn

= 1 [Proved]

Thank you for your question.
Answered by Anonymous
14

AnswEr:

Let a and d be the term and common difference respectively of the given A.P. Then,

 \tt \frac{1}{n}  = mth \: term \\  \\  \implies \tt \frac{1}{n}  = a + (m - 1)d -  -  - (1)

_____________

 \tt \frac{1}{m}  = nth \: term  \\  \\  \implies \tt \frac{1}{m} = a + (n - 1)d  -  -  - (2)

\underline\text{On\:subtracting\:(2)\:from\:(1)\:,we\:get}

 \tt \frac{1}{n}  -  \frac{1}{m}  = (m - n)d \\   \\  \implies \tt \frac{m - n}{mn}  = (m - n)d \\  \\  \implies \tt \: d =  \frac{1}{mn}

\underline\text{Putting\:d=1/mn\:in\:(1)\:we\:get}

  \tt \frac{1}{n}  = a +  \frac{(m - 1)}{mn}  \\  \\  \tt \implies \frac{1}{n}  = a +  \frac{1}{n}  -  \frac{1}{mn} \\  \\  \tt \implies \: a =  \frac{1}{mn}   \\  \\  \sf \therefore \: (mn)th \: term = a + (mn - 1)d =  \frac{1}{mn}  + (mn - 1) \frac{1}{mn}  = 1

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