Question

If P(A) = (m/n) then P(A') is​

Answer 1

Answer:

P(A')=( n-m)/n

Step-by-step explanation:

P(A') =1-P(A)

given P(A) = (m/n)

so, P(A') =1- m/n

P(A')=( n-m)/n

Answer 2

Given,

P(A) = (m/n)

To Find,

P(A') =?

Solution,

We can solve the question as follows:

It is given to us that the probability of an event A occurring is equal to m/n. We have to find the probability of event A not occurring i.e. A'.

$P(A) = \frac{m}{n}$

Now,

We know that the sum of an event A occurring and not occurring is always equal to 1. Therefore, the sum of P(A) and P(A') is equal to 1.

$P(A) + P(A') = 1$

Then, the probability of event A not occurring will be equal to 1 minus the probability of event A occurring.

$P(A') = 1 - P(A)$

Substituting the value of P(A),

$P(A') = 1 - \frac{m}{n}$

$P(A') = \frac{n-m}{n}$

Hence, P(A') is equal to n-m/n.