Math, asked by saaki05, 9 months ago

If p by q =( 5by6)-2 ÷(1by5 )2,find the value of (p by q )-1

Answers

Answered by challapavani1988
1

Answer:

-47/12

Step-by-step explanation:

given that, p/q =( (5/6)-2)÷(1/5)2

p/q = ((5-12)/6)÷2/5

p/q = (-7/6)÷(2/5)

p/q = (-7/6)×5/2

p/q = -35/12.........(1)

so, (p/q)-1= -35/12 - 1

= -35-12/12

= -47/12

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