Math, asked by Anonymous, 2 months ago

If p is a prime number, then prove that √p is an irrational number.

➡️ Don't spam !!
➡️ Quality answer is needed !!
➡️ Own answers are appreciated !!​

Answers

Answered by karthikarja
5

Answer:

see the above pic..

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps you...

Attachments:

Anonymous: Heya...Thnx ✌️
karthikarja: welcome☺️
Answered by ItzSujitha
2

❥︎❥︎Answer꧂

Let p be a rational number and p= a/b

➪p=a^2/b^2

➪a^2=pb^2

➪p divides a^2

But when a prime number divides the product of two numbers, it must divide atleast one of them.

here a^2 =a×a

p divides a

Let a=pk

(pk)^2 =pb^2

➪p^2k^2

➪b^2=pk^2

∴p divides b^2

But b^2=b×b

∴p divides b

Thus, a and b have atleast one common multiple p.

But it arises the contradiction to our assumption that a and b are co-prime.

Thus, our assumption is wrong and p is irrational number.

❤︎Hope it Helps You꧂

Similar questions
Math, 8 months ago