Math, asked by agrawalarpita00, 5 months ago

if p*is a refinement of p then u (p*, f, a) greater than or equal u (p,f,a)

Answers

Answered by VishalBharti585
0

Answer:

p* Is greater than.......

Answered by VineetaGara
0

The expected utility that a player receives under p* will be at least as high as the expected utility that they receive under p. Hence, u(p*, f, a) ≥ u(p, f, a) is a true statement.

In the context of microeconomic theory and game theory, the statement "If p* is a refinement of p, then u(p*, f, a) u(p, f, a)" is true.

  • In this sentence, "p" and "p*" denote two distinct probability distributions over a set of potential actions, "f" stands for the reward function, and "a" denotes the range of options that the players might choose from. According to a specific probability distribution over actions, "u" stands for the predicted utility that a player should experience.
  • When a probability distribution is refined, it becomes more accurate or finely tuned than the original distribution.
  • In other words, the new probability distribution favors the choices that the players are more likely to make.
  • When p* is a refinement of p, it signifies that p* gives some of the actions higher probabilities than p since they are chosen by players more frequently.
  • Because of this, a player's projected utility under p* will be at least as great as their expected usefulness under p. Consequently, the sentence u(p*, f, a) u(p, f, a) is true.

Therefore, the expected utility that a player receives under p* will be at least as high as the expected utility that they receive under p. Hence, u(p*, f, a) ≥ u(p, f, a) is a true statement.

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