if pth term of an A. P is 1/q and qth term is 1/p then prove that it's (pq)th term is 1
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take both formulas after than which u want to prove u can
deepabkar:
I didn't understood
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P=1/q and Q=1/p
So P×Q=1/q×1/p so q and p cut n is equal to one
So P×Q=1/q×1/p so q and p cut n is equal to one
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