Math, asked by mdayaz5762, 1 year ago

If $h_{1} =0$ and $h_{2} =0$ are compatible with f = 0, then prove that $h_{1}$ and $h_{2}$ satisfy $\frac{ \partial(f,h)}{ \partial(x,u_{x}) } +\frac{ \partial(f,h)}{ \partial(y,u_{y}) }+\frac{ \partial(f,h)}{ \partial(z,u_{z}) }=0$ .

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Answered by william22

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renders mathematical equations using a combination of html markup and a variant of LaTeX.

The version of LaTeX used is a subset of AMS-LaTeX markup, a superset of LaTeX markup which is in turn a superset of TeX markup, for mathematical formulae. Only a limited part of the full TeX language is supported; see below for details.[a]

By default SVG images with non-visible MathML are generated. The older PNG images can be set via user preferences.[b] On some browsers like Firefox, it is possible to use MathML for display via extensions; see the main extension page at mw:Extension:Math for details. Client side MathJax is no longer supported.

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If $h_{1} =0$ and $h_{2} =0$ are compatible with f = 0, then prove that $h_{1}$ and $h_{2}$ satisfy $\frac{ \partial(f,h)}{ \partial(x,u_{x}) } +\frac{ \partial(f,h)}{ \partial(y,u_{y}) }+\frac{ \partial(f,h)}{ \partial(z,u_{z}) }=0$ .