Economy, asked by ravinbhardwaj6089, 11 months ago

If the consumer is consuming exactly two goods, and she is always spending all of her money, can both of them be inferior goods?

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
12
No,both goods are not a inferior goods.

Inferior goods are those in case of which there is a negative relationship between income and quantity demand .Other Things remain constant quantity demand decreases In response to increase in consumer income .
Answered by Anonymous
4
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\huge\boxed{Answer}________✌✌

♠️If two goods are perfect substitutes, what is the demand function for good 2?

x2 = 0 when p2 > p1, x2 = m/p2 when p2 < p1, and anything between

0 and m/p2 when p1 = p2.

♠️Suppose that indifference curves are described by straight lines with a

slope of −b. Given arbitrary prices and money income p1, p2, and m, what

will the consumer's optimal choices look like

♠️The optimal choices will be x1 = m/p1 and x2 = 0 if p1/p2 < b,

x1 = 0 and x2 = m/p2 if p1/p2 > b, and any amount on the budget line if

p1/p2 = b.
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