Math, asked by chandasingh0110, 11 months ago

• If the mth term of an A.P.be - and nth term be-, show that its (mn)th is 1.

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
1

\huge\bold\red{HELLO!}

<marquee>ItzHarsh★</marquee>

given that, mth term=1/n and nth term=1/m.

then ,let a and d be the first term and the common difference of the A.P.

so a+(m-1)d=1/n...........(1) and a+(n-1)d=1/m...........(2).

subtracting equation (1) by (2) we get,

md-d-nd+d=1/n-1/m

=>d(m-n)=m-n/mn

=>d=1/mn.

again if we put this value in equation (1) or (2) we get, a=1/mn.

then, let A be the mnth term of the AP

a+(mn-1)d=1/mn+1+(-1/mn)=1

hence proved.

Similar questions