Math, asked by ranger0, 1 year ago

if the n term of an ap is 1 by M and m term of an ap is 1 by N prove that the mn term of an ap is 1​

Answers

Answered by MAYAKASHYAP5101
3

♠♠\huge\underline\bold{Heya!!!}♠♠

\huge\mathfrak\green{Solution :}

Given that :- mth term=1/n and nth

term=1/m.

then ,let a and d be the first term and the common difference of the A.P.

so a+(m-1)d=1/n...........(1) and a+

(n-1)d=1/m...........(2).

subtracting equation (1) by (2) we get,

md-d-nd+d=1/n-1/m

=>d(m-n)=m-n/mn

=>d=1/mn.

again if we put this value in equation (1)

or (2) we get, a=1/mn.

then, let A be the mnth term of the AP

a+(mn-1)d=1/mn+1+(-1/mn)=1

\huge\boxed{Hense\:Proved !!!}

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