If the net force acting on an object is zero, will the object be necessarily at rest? Why?
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
No ,if a body is moving with a velocity and the net force during the course of its motion is zero the body will still continue is its states of uniform motion as per Newton's law of intertia
Since there will be no such net force to overcome its inertia of uniform motion yes
YOUR QUERY:-
It depends upon in which refrance frame you are talking. So it's still matter of debate..
Even we can't define your n right way the definition of motion without talking about refrance frame. And it will be wrong concept of motion without telling about refrance frame.
★But still you take refrance frame as the earth & total resultant force acting on the body is equal to zero then either it's in rest or moving with constant velocity that meant acceleration=0.
For example: if a body is moving with a velocity and the net force during the course of its motion is zero the body will still continue in its state of uniform motion as per Newton's law of inertia.
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In real life there is no situation of net force=0 which is possible( except in the books ).
When the net force on a body is zero , it implies that the body will/cannot be accelerated. This follows from Newton’s second law of motion.
F= m * a;
where ‘F’ denotes force , ‘m’ denotes mass and ‘a’ denoted the acceleration.
When net force is zero , F=0 . So m * a should be zero too.
But your mass cannot be zero !!!. SO , acceleration should be zero.
Acceleration is what changes your speed( precisely the rate of change of velocity) . When there is no acceleration , then the body continues to move with whatever speed it had before.
This speed can be any value including zero. At zero speed the body remains at rest , ie,, wont move.
SO it does not necessarily mean that the object should be at rest.