Math, asked by iqr89, 10 months ago

If the polynomial px3+4x2+3x-4 and x3-4x+p are divided by (x-3), then the remainder in each case is the same, show that p= - 1

Answers

Answered by mgyittonelayma
82

Let, f(x)=px^3+4x^2+3x-4

g(x)=x^3-4x+p

f(x) and g(x) are divided by (x-3).

same remainder,

f(3)=g(3)

p(3)^3+4(3)^2+3x3-4=(3)^3-4x3-p

27p+36+9-4=27-12+p

26p+41=15

26p=15-41

26p=-26

p=-26/26

p=-1


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Answered by hukam0685
7

It has been shown that p= -1.

Given:

  • Two polynomials.
  • p {x}^{3}  + 4 {x}^{2}  + 3x - 4 \\ and  {x}^{3}  - 4x + p \\
  • Divided by (x-3)
  • Remainder is same for both.

To find:

  • Show that p=-1.

Solution:

Theorem to be used:

Remainder Theorem: If polynomial p(x) is divided by (x-a) then, remainder is given by p(a).

Step 1:

Find remainder for the first polynomial.

Let f(x) = p {x}^{3}  + 4 {x}^{2}  + 3x - 4 \\

Put x= 3 in f(x).

f(3) = p {(3)}^{3}  + 4 {(3)}^{2}  + 3(3) - 4 \\

or

f(3) = 27p  + 36  +9 - 4 \\

or

\bf f(3) = 27p  + 41...eq1\\

Step 2:

Find remainder for second polynomial.

Let g(x) = {x}^{3}  - 4x + p \\

Put x= 3 in g(x).

g(3) = {(3)}^{3}  - 4(3) + p \\

or

\bf g(3) =p  + 15..eq2 \\

Step 3:

Equate both equations.

ATQ

f(3) = g(3) \\

or

27p + 41 = p  + 15 \\

or

26p =  - 26 \\

or

\bf p =  - 1 \\

Thus,

It has been shown that p= -1.

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