Question

if the product of two whole number is 1,can we say that one or both of them will be 1? justify through examples​

Answer 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Let 'a' and 'b' be two whole number .

Therefore, A/Q

a×b=1=>ab=1-------------------------------------(1)

From (1) we get,

a=1/b and b=1/a

Now , a×b=1/b×1/a

=>ab=1/ab

Since we know that when a number is multiplied by its multiplicative inverse ,then the result will always be 1.

Therefore, by this property we can say that if the product of two whole numbers is 1.So, we can say that one number is the multiplicative inverse of the other.

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