Math, asked by nankidauc, 2 months ago

If the product of two whole numbers is 1 , can we say that one or both of them will be 1 ? Justify through examples .​

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
1

Answer:

Justification. If the two numbers' product is one, then both numbers need to be equal to 1 only. If only one number were 1, then the product cannot be 1. Hence, If the product of two whole number is 1, then both the whole numbers should be 1.

@KUNAL TIJARE....

Answered by passgirl1642
1

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Bcoz,

1 is a whole number and 1 multiplied by 1 is 1 only so for eg

1×1=1

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