Math, asked by khanfarzeen2001, 9 months ago

If the total GDP is the same for both the countries,
then what percentage is Pakistan's income through
agriculture over India's income through services?
(a) 100%
(b) 200%
(c) 133.33%
(d) None of these
...
Can also please give an explanation ​

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Answers

Answered by harshita798
1

Answer:

b options is correct answer means mark me brilliant ok

Answered by innocentboy001
0

Answer:

yrr Mera dimaag ghum geya ans. dhunde mein pata app kya kro app goggle pe Pakistan GDP in agriculture Dekho kitni money hai fr Indian services GDP Dekho uski amount note kro aur divide kro apko answer mil jayenga

meko neend boht Ayo hai sorry isliye ans.nhi de pata SORRY MAM☹️

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