Math, asked by ashutoshmajhi945, 3 months ago

If the wages of 4 men for 30 days amount to 3900, what is the wage of 20 men for 40 days?( do in inverse variation without unitary method)

Answers

Answered by harshvikshah

0

Answer:

4 men for 30 days means 120 man-days.. 20 men for 40 days means 800 man-days.

Answered by pahal2900

0

Answer:

4 men for 30 days means 120 man-days.. 20 men for 40 days means 800 man-days

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