Math, asked by ravik73585, 7 months ago

if two sides and an angle of one triangle are equal to two sides and an angle of another triangle, the two triangles must be congruent. Is the statement true? Why? ​

Answers

Answered by thequeen79
23

Step-by-step explanation:

No, because in the congruent rule, the two sides and and the included angle of one triangle are equal to the two sides and the included angle of the other triangle i.e SAS rule.

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Answered by Anonymous
21

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Yes, this statement is true. There are certain rules to prove the congurency of 2 Triangles, according to your statement that is a SAS congurence rule. In this rule when 2 sides and one angle are proved equal to 2 sides and an angle of another Triangle. Then the congurency is also going to be proved, then we can say that these both trinagles are congurent.

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Some more rules of a Triangle-

  • ASA rule

When 2 angles and one side of a Triangle are equal to the 2 angles and one side of another Triangle. Then Triangles are congurent.

  • SAS rule

When 2 sides and one angle of a triangle are equal to the 2 sides and one angle of another Triangle. Then Triangles are congurent.

  • SSS rule

If 3 sides of a Triangle are equal to the 3 sides of another Triangle. Then Triangles are congurent.

  • RHS rule

If in 2 right triangles the hypotenuse and one side of one Triangle are equal to the hypotenuse and one angle of another Triangle. Then Triangles are congurent.

  • AAS rule

When 2 angles and one sides are equal to 2 angles and one side of a Triangle. Then Triangles are congurent.

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