Math, asked by arshuma3139, 9 months ago

If we mutiply a no with 1 so the ans is the same as the no we used with 1 why is it done ??

Answers

Answered by 123RohithB321

2

Answer:

because it is the value of the number

Answered by hooriyakafeel75

1

Because this is the rule and value of the number too

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