If x + 1 men will do the work in x +1 days, find the number of days that (x + 2) men can
finish the same work.
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Answer:
We know that,
x+1 men ⇒x+1 days
1 man ⇒(x+1)∗(x+1) days
x+2 men ⇒
x+2
(x+1)
2
days
∴,x+2 men can do the same work in
(x+2)
(x+1)
2
days
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