Question

If X and Y are independent uniform random variables on (0,1), is X +Y again a uniform random variable? true or false?
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Answer 1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

et  X  and  Y  be two continuous random variables with density functions  f(x)  and  g(y) , respectively. Assume that both  f(x)  and  g(y)  are defined for all real numbers. Then the convolution  f∗g  of  f  and  g  is the function given by

rcl(f∗g)==∫∞−∞f(z−y)g(y)dy∫∞−∞g(z−x)f(x)dx(7.2.1)(7.2.2)

Answer 2

Answer:

true i think thats true