Math, asked by monjyotiboro, 2 months ago

If X and Y are two non -empty sets then what is (X-Y) ' is equal to what?

:::-))) prove it by using properties of sets not with example​

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Answers

Answered by LivetoLearn143
1

\large\underline{\sf{Solution-}}

Given that

X and Y are two non - empty sets.

We know,

From properties of sets,

\rm :\longmapsto\:X - Y

\rm \:  =  \:  \: X \:  \cap \: Y'

and

By De Morgan's Law,

\rm :\longmapsto\: {(X \:  \cap \: Y)}^{'}  = X' \:  \cup \: Y'

Also,

\rm :\longmapsto\: {( {X}^{'} )}^{'}  = X

Now, Consider

\rm :\longmapsto \:  {(X - Y)}^{'}

\rm \:  =  \:  \:  {(X \:  \cap \:  {Y}^{'})}^{'}

\rm \:  =  \:  \:  {X}^{'}  \:  \cup \:   {( {Y}^{'} )}^{'}

\rm \:  =  \:  \:  {X}^{'}  \:  \cup \:  Y

So,

\rm :\longmapsto \:  {(X - Y)}^{'}  =  {X}^{'} \:  \cup \: Y

So, option (c) is correct.

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