If x(b-c)+y(c-a)+z(a-b)=0
prove that bz-cy)/b-c=cx-az)/c-a=ay-bx)/a-b
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Answered by
3
Answer:
=> (1/2)*{x(0 - b) + a(b - y) + 0(y - 0)} = 0
=> -bx + ab - ay = 0
=> bx + ay = ab
=> bx/ab + ay/ab = 1
=> x/a + y/b = 1
Step-by-step explanation:
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Answered by
38
Step-by-step explanation:
x(b-c)+y(c-a)+z(a-b)=0
bx - cx + cy - ay + az - bz = 0
multiply by c
bcx - c^2x + c^2y - acy + acz - bcz = 0
transpose some .
bcx - c^2x + acz = bcz - c^2y + acy
subtract abz both sides .
bcx - abz - c^2x + acz = bcz - abz - c^2y + acy
b(cx - az) - c(cx - az) = bz(c - a) - cy (c - a)
(b - c) (cx - az) = (c - a) (bz - cy)
thus
(bz - cy)/(b - c) = (cx - az)/(c - a)
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