Math, asked by yashwanthpaleti2006, 30 days ago

If x/(p+q-r)=y/(q+r-p)=z/(p+r-q) then prove that (p - q)x + (q - r)y + (r - p)z = 0

Answers

Answered by maheshwaridevi24557
0

Answer:

proved I have done it in computer

Attachments:
Answered by gopal4098
0

Step-by-step explanation:

If x/(p+q-r)=y/(q+r-p)=z/(p+r-q) (p - q)x + (q - r)y + (r - p)z (86658) (87988) (246932)=536546

Similar questions