if X + Y divided by X + Y + Z is equal to Y + then divided by X + Y + Z is equal to X + that divided by X + Y + Z is equal to pis equal to P then which of the following can be the value of p
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Answer:
By both method remainder is same .i.e, 2
Step-by-step explanation:
Given Dividend =
Divisor = x - 1
Long division is attached in pics.
remainder we get = 2
According to remainder theorem when a polynomial , p(x) is divided by a liner polynomial of form x - a then p(a) gives the value of remainder,
According to he remainder theorem,
Remainder = p(1) = = 1 + 1 - 2 + 1 + 1 = 2
Therefore, By both method remainder is same .i.e, 2
Read more on Brainly.in - https://brainly.in/question/4186507#readmore
By both method remainder is same .i.e, 2
Step-by-step explanation:
Given Dividend =
Divisor = x - 1
Long division is attached in pics.
remainder we get = 2
According to remainder theorem when a polynomial , p(x) is divided by a liner polynomial of form x - a then p(a) gives the value of remainder,
According to he remainder theorem,
Remainder = p(1) = = 1 + 1 - 2 + 1 + 1 = 2
Therefore, By both method remainder is same .i.e, 2
Read more on Brainly.in - https://brainly.in/question/4186507#readmore
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