Math, asked by harshitha057, 7 months ago

if (x + y)z =1, then z is a multiplicative inverse of?

Attachments:

Answers

Answered by sharmaaarvi979

0

Answer:

c will the correct option

Step-by-step explanation:

x+y= 1/z so z = 1/x+y

Previous Question

Next Question

Similar questions

Math, 3 months ago

[ (15^1/4) ÷ (3^1/2) ]^-2...

English, 3 months ago

they visited to naran valley.change into present indefinite tense ...

Social Sciences, 3 months ago

what did it commemorate?

Math, 7 months ago

a linear equation has how many solution...

English, 7 months ago

our teacher buys books every month...

Math, 11 months ago

all whole numbers are___________ numbers...

Biology, 11 months ago

give examples of three daily life activities in which osomis is involved...

English, 11 months ago

my aim in life as a teacher (long essay)...