Math, asked by randomlearner, 1 year ago

If x1 > x2 then is f (x1) > f (x2) always true?
Explain.

Answers

Answered by believers
1
yes .. it is always true...

this is because x1 is greater then X2
therefore if we multiply f both side then :-

f (x1) will always be greater then f (x2)
believers: thanks random learner
randomlearner: f is not being multiplied it's a function
randomlearner: which class are you in?
randomlearner: its from 11th std
randomlearner: thanks for your effort anyway
believers: Opps sorry
believers: I'm in 9th
randomlearner: oh its okay
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