Math, asked by anjimaraj802, 5 hours ago

If y= sin mx prove that y"±m^2 y =0

Answers

Answered by senboni123456
0

Step-by-step explanation:

We have,

y =  \sin(mx)

 \implies \: y ^{ \prime} = m \cos(mx)

 \implies \: y ^{ \prime \prime} = m.m \{  - \sin(mx)  \}

 \implies \: y ^{ \prime \prime} =  - m^{2} \sin(mx)

 \implies \: y ^{ \prime \prime} =  - m^{2} y

 \implies \: y ^{ \prime \prime}  +  m^{2} y = 0

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