Question

If y (sin x) , 1 2 = then use leibnizs theorem to prove that (1 x )y (2n 1)x y n y 0 n 2 n 2 n 1 2 + + + = where n y stands for the nth derivative of y w.R.T. X.

Answer 1

Answer:

tutulfhleldoyfyldlyelyd66rhdoyr7prulr7pr7474747474747474747474747p5 yotit8t7t85i58y

t8yoyoyi596

easy