Math, asked by krishnagarg1414, 5 months ago

If y² – y – 42 = (y + k)(y + 6), then k =
1 point
a. 7
b. -7
c. 6
d. -6

Answers

Answered by vemansivaprasad
0

Answer:

-7is the answer because y+6

Answered by nandanipaul123
0

Answer:

answer

 - 7

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