Math, asked by Anonymous, 1 year ago

If you are a genius solve


Prove that
2+2=5


Anonymous: koi genius nahi hai

Answers

Answered by AmanVaibhav
3
hey friend
taking 2^2-2^2=10-10
so by applying (a^2-b^2) =>(a+b)(a-b)
(2+2)(2-2)=5(2-2)
so by Dividing​ 5(2-2)by (2-2)
=>(2+2)=5(2-2)/(2-2)
=>(2+2)=5
hence proved
Answered by KnowMyPain
3

I am sorry that I am answering an year old question. But these kinda question is exceeeding its limit in brainly and some are even answered by 'rulers' of brainly. The one who proves this is actually a toddler in math rather than a genius. Whatever you try to hoodwink children by fake-math, math never changes a wink for anyone.

I may continue the above proof to simplify it completly.

(2+2)(2-2)=5(2-2)

Divide both sides by (2-2)

\frac{(2+2)(2-2)}{(2-2)}=\frac{5(2-2)}{(2-2)}\\ \\\frac{ (2+2)\times0}{0}=\frac{5\times0}{0}\\ \\ (2+2)\times\frac{0}{0}=5\times\frac{0}{0}

Savage! Now cancel common terms in numerator and denominator. That is (2-2) which is 0. And it leaves 1(for eg:2/2 when you cancel both 2's what remains is 1) Next?

(2+2)\times1= 5\times1\\2+2=5 \\

Hence proved.

Is that? Where on earth does it means that 0/0= 1? 0/0 is not defined and proof should be, for real, as follows.

(2+2)\times\frac{0}{0}......5\times\frac{0}{0}

(2+2)×(not defined).....5×(not defined)

hence not proved.

Fill in those blanks with appropriate symbol. I dunno what math operation that might be.

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