Political Science, asked by harelyquinn, 8 hours ago

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Answered by Khushi212007
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As such we all know that Europe is a developed continent and it has a well developed technology as compared to Asia so undoubtedly it has a well equipped military since many past years. So I think due to their rising power, rebellion in the form of alliance, their blind patriotism were the reasons due to which both the wars took place. According to me greediness for land could also be the reason of the wars. After the first world War they would have started to develop their military and recover their losses but may be their rebellion was still on its temper.

May be this could be the significance. please mark me the brainliest.

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