Question

If ZIP=198 and ZAP=246 then how will you code VIP​

Answer 1

Answer:

ZIP = (26 - 9 + 16) * 6 = 33 *6 = 198. So, VIP = (22 - 9 + 16) * 6 = 29 * 6 = 174.

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Answer 2

Answer:

The logic of the series is (1st - 2nd + 3rd term) * 6.

Here, A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, .........., Z = 26.

So,

ZIP = (26 - 9 + 16) * 6 = 33 *6 = 198.

ZAP = (26 - 1 + 16) * 6 = 41 * 6 = 246

So,

VIP = (22 - 9 + 16) * 6 = 29 * 6 = 174.

Therefore, Vip = 174.

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Adaffi Raf : I think the answer is 222. — Like 33

Naveen Arya : I am also in favour of you.

Take reverse of alphabet and add 1

Z =A =1+1=2

I =R=18+1=19

P= k = 11+1 =20

Then total (2+19+20=33)

33*6 = 198

And same calculation in 2nd

Z=A = 1+1 = 2

A=Z= 26+1=27

P= K = 11+1 =12

(2+27+12= 41)

41*6= 246

For VIP

V=E =5+1=6

I=R =18+1=19

P=K= 11+1=12

(6+19+12=37)

37*6= 222. — Like 38

Babul Dev Singh : Ans is correct but the process can't get. It is asked in DMRC 2017. — Like 13

vijay : Just take the reverse alphabetical order and multiply the values.

Z*I*P=A*R*K=1*18*11=198,

Z*A*P=A*Z*K=1*26*11=286,

V*I*P=E*R*K=5*18*11=990,

So, the answer is 990. — Like 25

ajay kumar : But ZAP=246 instead of this you got 286. So answer is wrong.

The correct ans is 222. — Like 29

Vamsi : 222 is not correct answer 2+19+20=41 not 33 so the answer is 174

Step-by-step explanation:

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