Question

iii) The graph of every function from ]1,0[ to R is infinite.is it true or false statement give reason

Answer 1

Step-by-step explanation:

I think so

true

I don't know the exact answers

Answer 2

Given : mentioned functions from interval (0,1).

To show : graph of every function from (0,1) ro $\mathbb R$ is infinite.

Step-by-step explanation:

By Archemedian property the open interval (0,1) contains infinitely many points. So it is a infinite set. And if we define function from (0,1) to $\mathbb R$ then its graph means its image will go infinity since its range set $\mathbb R$ is too infinite.

So it is possible to exists a continuous one-one map between (0,1) and $\mathbb R$ so that graph of the corresponding function become infinite.