Economy, asked by sreedhukrishna9, 7 months ago

In a Binominal distribution , if mean is K times the variance ,then the value of K will be​

Answers

Answered by sahanasusamagmailcom
2

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Answered by badisamira15
0

Answer:

1/q

Explanation:

np=x

npq=Kx

xq=Kx

q=Kx/x

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