Math, asked by sadhana80, 11 months ago

in a group prove that a inverse whole inverse equal to a for all

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Answered by Anonymous
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That function g is then called the inverse of f, and is usually denoted as f −1. Stated otherwise, a function, considered as a binary relation, has an inverse if and only if the converse relation is a function on the range Y, in which case the converse relation is the inverse function.
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