in order to complete a work in 28 days 60 men are required how many men will be required it the same work is to be completed in 40 days
Answers
Answered by
20
Let there are 28×60 parts of that work = 1680 parts
in 40 days, men needed = (total work)/days = 1680/40 = 42 men
Method 2
work is always the same, so
men1×days1 = men2×days2
⇒28×60= men2×40
⇒men2 = 42
in 40 days, men needed = (total work)/days = 1680/40 = 42 men
Method 2
work is always the same, so
men1×days1 = men2×days2
⇒28×60= men2×40
⇒men2 = 42
Answered by
12
It is inverse proportion
Let the number of workers reqd. to complete the work in 40 days be 'x'.
28×60 = 40 × x
(Since its inversely proportional)
1680/40= x
x = 42 workers
Let the number of workers reqd. to complete the work in 40 days be 'x'.
28×60 = 40 × x
(Since its inversely proportional)
1680/40= x
x = 42 workers
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