Math, asked by munla81, 1 month ago

in the property in the property of indices a^m ÷ a^n = a^m-n, taking m=0 show that a^-n= 1/a^n

Answers

Answered by krut36

1

Answer:

hope it helps you

Step-by-step explanation:

plz make me brainlist

Attachments:

Previous Question

Next Question

Similar questions

Geography, 15 days ago

1. Answer the following questions. (1) Why do the plates move?

English, 15 days ago

proper noun and common noun...

Science, 15 days ago

what is physical and what is the meaning of physical...

English, 1 month ago

Read this excerpt from "Street Cleaning Day.” An open space on the street snapped him out of his thoughts and back to the wheel. He sped up a little and moved close to the curb, pulling ahead of the space. Just as he shifted his car in reverse, a flash swooped in from behind and took from Square what the morning had offered. Out hopped Triangle from his truck, whistling, his point...

Math, 1 month ago

Factorise 16a? + 9b? - 2ab using appropriate identity. plz answer fast who will answer I will mark as brainlist and thanks him and yeah! all question marks are power of 2 ok!...

English, 8 months ago

write a letter to your friend who is living in a red zone and to follow the guidance given by the government...

English, 8 months ago

Hi read this paragraph and find the following answers a) What happened to disturb the frog that was living in the well? b) What famous idiom can you think of relating to this story of frog?Why? c) Which one of the frogs had seen more of life? d) How was the frog from the sea and frog in the well different from each other? e)Why did the frog in the well want the other one thrown out? f) What...

English, 8 months ago

Correct modals. Instead, literature -(should, will, must, need) be read at leisure with undivided attention and students -(cannot, needn't, couldn't, shouldn't) be pressurized to memorize for exams...