Chemistry, asked by sherin67, 1 year ago

Inert gases have zero valency. Why?

Answers

Answered by MissWorkholic

2

Explanation:

Because their octet is complete.

Follow and Mark as brainliest plz❣️

Previous Question

Next Question

Similar questions

Hindi, 6 months ago

लेखिका ने हिमालय की सुंदरता का वर्णन किस प्रकार किया है पाठ साना साना हाथ जोड़ी के आधार पर लिखिए...

Science, 6 months ago

If millions of sperms are transferred from the male to the female body, how many fuse with the egg?

Biology, 6 months ago

Published a book that contains the details of endangered and threatened species of flora and fauna?

English, 1 year ago

how the pyramid is formed or made . explain it ...

History, 1 year ago

who is the mandodari 's father?

Math, 1 year ago

At what time between 5.30 and 6.00 will be handa of a clock be at right angles...

Physics, 1 year ago

Men, women and children are employed to do a work in the proportion of 3 : 2 : 1 and their wages per person are in the proportion of 5 : 3 : 2. When 90 men are employed, total daily wages of all amounts to rs. 10,350. Find the daily wage of a man.

Math, 1 year ago

Show that area of triangle formed by y=m1x +c1,and=m2x+c2,y=m3x+c3...