Physics, asked by maryamg786786, 10 months ago

inverse lsplase transform of 1/s-k is​

Answers

Answered by taronavijit
0

Explanation:

Now the inverse Laplace transform of 2 (s−1) is 2e1 t. Less straightforwardly, the inverse Laplace transform of 1 s2 is t and hence, by the first shift theorem, that of 1 (s−1)2 is te1 t.

Similar questions