Math, asked by 1969bharatkumar, 10 months ago

is 0.3 is the multiplicative inverse of 1 ⅓ why or why not ?

Answers

Answered by abhinavkundu06

1

Answer:

because point is there

Step-by-step explanation:

0000

Answered by princess3925

3

Answer:

No

Step-by-step explanation:

because multiplicative inverse is 3/4

and we all know 3/4 is not equal to 0.3

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