is 4by5 the multiplicative inverse of -5by4?why or why not?
Answers
Answered by
1
Answer:
no because multiplicative inverse is reciprocal
Step-by-step explanation:
4by 5 = 5by4
Answered by
1
No, because multiplicative inverse is the reciorcal of the given fraction.
So,it must be 4by-5.
Hope it will help you!!!!!
Similar questions