Question

is cos^-1(-x) equal to cos^-1(x)​

Answer 1

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Becuz cos(-x)= cosx

Cos^-1 (-x) is 1/Cos(-x), which is equal to 1/Cos(x) [as cos(-x)= cos x]

And

Cos^-1 (x) is 1/Cosx

So both are same