Math, asked by pushpendra345, 11 months ago

is it must that a Pythagoras triplet should have one of its number as a multiple of 3​

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
0

Answer:

No definately no it is false

Answered by teeshajindal11193
1

Answer:

considered the pythagoras theoram :

a²+ b² + c² = c²

let a² = 3m or a²= 3m +1 ( a prefect square can be expressed as a multiple of 3.

similarity, let b²= 3k or b²= 3k + 1

then c² according to the pythagoras theoram, the sum of a² and b².

let us assume that we take a²and b² as non - multiple of 3.

c²=3m +1 +3k+1= 3(m+k)+ 2

put simplicity the successor of the successor of a multiple of 3. This is a contradiction since c² is a perfect square which can only be expressed as a a multiple of 3 or the successor of 3.

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