is it true that for any sets A andB,
P(A) U P(B) = P(AUB)? Justify your
answer
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Step-by-step explanation:
Let A={0,1} and B={1,2}
∴A∪B={0,1,2}
P(A)={ϕ,{0},{1},{0,1}}
P(B)={ϕ,{1},{2},{1,2}}
P(A∪B)={ϕ,{0},{1},{2},{0,1},{1,2},{0,2},{0,1,2}}
P(A)∪P(B)={ϕ,{0},{1},{0,1},{2},{1,2}}
∴P(A)∪P(B)
=P(A∪B)
False
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