Biology, asked by amanlii6060, 10 months ago

Is mother responsible for not bearing a male child ? explain why ?

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
13

Answer:

agree that making such blanket generalizations about mothers and their regulated, gendered, societal codes of behavior allow us ignore nuances inherent in the very fluidity of culture under pressures of globalization. To make an evidence-based case, one needs to inquire into attitudinal imperatives undergirding a mother's show of affection in various eco-systems=urban, rural, class, region, generational, etc. One point my multidisciplinary, multi-partner research shows is that such exclusions of a daughter from parental affection is on the one hand less amongst "modern" urban nuclear families, and more or explicit when inter-genrational members exert influences, both openly and covertly. This is what I meant by globalization, not viewing the phenomenon through an economic lens, but rather through proliferation of consumerism, media, and other sociocultural factors.

Answered by Anonymous
12

Answer:

In the XY sex-determination system, the female-provided ovum contributes an X chromosome and the male-provided sperm contributes either an X chromosome or a Y chromosome, resulting in female (XX) or male (XY) offspring, respectively. Hormone levels in the male parent affect the sex ratio of sperm in humans.

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