Science, asked by neetusingh50501, 11 months ago

is pa equal to n/m2​

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
2

\huge\red{\boxed{\bold{Answer}}}

Yes, it is correct.

1 Pascal =  \</strong><strong>l</strong><strong>a</strong><strong>r</strong><strong>g</strong><strong>e\frac{</strong><strong><em>1</em></strong><strong>\</strong><strong>:</strong><strong>Newton</strong><strong>}{</strong><strong>metre^</strong><strong>2</strong><strong>}

\huge\mathbb\blue{THANK\:YUH!}

Answered by xLAVA90x
2

Answer:

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Yes this is correct.

1pa =n/

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